Tue, 17 Sep 2002 23:33:46 +0900, William Djaja Tjokroaminata <billtj / z.glue.umd.edu> pisze:

> Oh, yes, yes, but the distinction between 'foo % bar' and 'foo %bar' is
> clear in Perl, isn't it, independent of the definition of foo?

No, both can mean either foo(%bar) or foo() % bar(), depending on
the definition of foo.

-- 
  __("<      Marcin Kowalczyk
  \__/     qrczak / knm.org.pl
   ^^    http://qrnik.knm.org.pl/~qrczak/